2000 Randall Duane Hughes
I think it would be
everyone's desire to know God! In fact, it should be more important to
know God than anything else! Because a correct understanding can lead to
eternal life! John 17:3; 8:24; It should be more important than to defend a
particular view of God, even when that view is proven inconsistent with the
Bible! It is my prayer that God will speak through His Word as I have provided
here for you. And in so doing, you would have a new understanding, a new
revelation of who God really is as expressed in the Scriptures.
When was the
Trinity revealed? This is no doubt the
biggest question in my mind! In a search to find out who God is, this is the top
question I am confronted with. The answer should be quite revealing!
While we walk by faith and not by sight, there is still a large part of our faith that is based upon history! I believe the Bible is true, not because YOU say it is, but because I can read it, and find things that have been proven true with history! Yes, there are a people on this earth called Jews who have a father named Abraham! Faith (in part) is based upon history! Yes, there are thousands of prophecies that have been made in the Scriptures, many have already come to pass! Thus, because of this historical record, I place my faith in the prophecies that have not been fulfilled as yet! Faith (in part) is based on history. So what is the "History of God?"
In Part I there are basically three areas we
will look at:
Record reveals to us that for the
first 4,000 years of man, The True God was viewed as absolutely ONE! There is almost 10,000 times in the Old Testament that we read of God as absolutely ONE!
There are some 7,742 times where God's name is
used with singular verbs and pronouns! 1.)
Some 2,000 times where Elohim (Heb. plural
word meaning God) is used with singular verbs and pronouns! 2.)
There is 40 times where God is called the
"Holy One." 3.)
There is 13 times where God is said to be
There are 12 times where the term "None
else" is used to describe God. 5.)
That's right, there
are over 9,807 times where God is spoken of in The Old Testament as being
absolutely ONE! The words "Father" and "Spirit" are found
in the Old Testament in reference to God. 6.)
Not once does it indicate a
"person" separate from God, in, or with God! Nor did the Jews believe it to indicate divisions
of parts or persons in their One God!
Nor did the Jews believe it to indicate divisions of parts or persons in their One God!
Historical record there are also a few verses that seem to raise some
questions. Trinitarians of our day point to verses such as: Genesis 1:26;
7.) 3:22; 11:7; 19:24; Psalms 2:7; 45:6,7;
110:1,4; Isaiah 6:8; 44:6; 48:16; And while at a glance they may seem confusing,
in light of what has been pointed out above, they are rather easily explained.
are some 12 verses that seem to indicate some plurality in God in
the Old Testament. That is twelve verses with plurals or seemingly two or more
"persons" (in only 3 of the 39 books!) mentioned against over 9,807
verses as singular!
found in Genesis 1:26; 3:22; 11:7; and Isa. 6:8; have two basic views.
Many view them as God speaking to the heavenly courts, the angels.
Gen. 3:24 and then Isa. 6:1-8, both indicate angelic activity within the
context. Gen. 1:26 and 11:7 also
have historical Jewish record of this also as God addressing angels. 8.) Also the Torah (See footnote 7.), views Gen. 1:26 as simply a
"plurality of majesty." This by the people who wrote it. I would think
that ought to carry some weight when you view the way a few of our words have
changed in the past few years. "Bad" can mean "good" or
"cool." "Gay" which used to mean "happy" or
"fun," now generally is interpreted as meaning an alternate life style
(though NOT in the eyes of God!). So should we view "us" in
these instances to mean a "plurality of persons" when the original
writers did not see it that way?
Then in Genesis
19:24, we find, "Then the LORD rained upon Sodom and upon Gomorrah
brimstone and fire from the LORD in heaven." Do we have two LORD's here?
Absolutely NOT! This would go against the teaching of the entire Bible! De. 6:4;
Eph. 4:5 tells us explicitly, "ONE Lord!" Even the Trinitarian Creed's
say "Not three LORD's but One LORD." So why the confusing wording? The
LORD who is a Spirit that is everywhere, Psalms 139:7-12; was just moments
before revealed in angelic form to Abraham, Genesis 18:1-33; Heb. 1:1; 2:16; and
very possibly as he left Abraham, he rained down the fire and brimstone from
heaven. Heaven is generally viewed as being the "location" of God.
Even though, we know He cannot be "contained" to one location in that
He is a Spirit that is everywhere! 1 Kg 8:27; Jer. 23:24;
The passages in
Psalms are prophecies that were not as yet fulfilled at their writing, as we
shall see in our third inquiry. And the two passages in Isaiah are easily
explained. Isaiah 6 has been mentioned with angelic activity above.
In Isaiah 44:6, IF there are two here, which one is speaking? Remember
One LORD! Thirteen times Isaiah refers to the "Redeemer" 9.)
and it is understood this is ONE person, even their ONE God! In fact, Isaiah
63:16 indicates the Redeemer is also their father, their ONE God! Isaiah 64:8,
Malachi 2:10, Jeremiah 31:1,9.
Something that I feel is very important to
look at is the way these verses were historically interpreted by the Jews.
Interpretation of these passages is
consistent with the majority of the passages. Surprise! That is the 9,807 or
more passages rather than the twelve passages that are only found in 3 of 39
books! We will review a few quotes
to establish this.
starts with the proclamation of the Only One, and later Judaism marches through
the nations and ages of history with a never-silent protest against polytheism
of every kind, against every division of the Godhead into parts, powers, or
pages of Genesis, the opening of the Torah, as well as the exilic portions of
Isaiah which form the culmination of the prophets, and the Psalms also, prove
sufficiently that at their time monotheism was an axiom of Judaism."
churchmen have attempted often enough to harmonize the dualism or trinitarianism
of Christianity with the monotheism of the Bible. Still Judaism persist in
considering such an infringement upon the belief in Israel's one and only God as
really a compromise with heathenism. 'A Jew is he who opposes every sort of
polytheism,' says the Talmud."
martyrs likewise cheerfully offered up their lives in His honor; and thus all
hearts echoed the battle-cry of the centuries, 'Hear O Israel, the Lord our God,
the Lord is One,' and all minds were illuminated by the radiant hope, 'The Lord
will be King of the earth; on that day the Lord shall be One, and His name
We will also look at some statements by a Jew
regarding Deuteronomy 6:4-9.
verses are learned by Jewish children when they begin to speak; they are uttered
by Jews with their last breath before they die. They accompany Jews through
life, giving form and unity to their existence. They are known by every Jew in
every land, have been spoken aloud by untold generations, and have accompanied
thousands of martyrs into death. They give unity to the generations."
verse expresses our 'acceptance of the yoke of the Kingdom of Heaven' God is One
and unique. His oneness transcends all other forms of oneness. God's oneness is
absolute. He is not composed of parts. There is no other oneness like His, and
human beings cannot fathom it" 11.)
When we read just a
little bit about the customs of the Jews concerning this passage from
Deuteronomy 6 we begin to realize why it is so difficult for them to convert to
Trinitarianism. There was no division in their God. And not only was there no
division of parts, powers, or persons, this was a thought that was reaffirmed to
them constantly! They were to wear the Tefillin upon their foreheads and on
their non-dominate arm, (also known as phylacteries). They were to place this
passage (along with a few others) upon their doors, this being called the
mezuzah. They were to touch it, and then kiss the fingers that did so, and think
of their God and his commandments each time they went through the door. That
ought to keep it pretty fresh in your memory! And it did so even in the face of
The Jewish writers understanding of God as
being absolutely one has not escaped the attention of Trinitarians.
the Old Testament tell us of God? It
tells us there is one God, a wonderful God of life and love and righteousness
and power and glory and mystery, who is the creator and lord of the whole
universe, who is intensely concerned with the tiny people of Israel.
It tells us of His Word, Wisdom, Spirit, of the Messiah He will send, of
a Son of Man, and a Suffering Servant to come.
But it tells us nothing explicitly or by necessary implication of a
Triune God who is Father, Son, and Holy Spirit."
"We do not
intend to seek in the Old Testament and in the New Testament what is not there,
a formal statement of Trinitarian doctrine."
recent scholars find no evidence in the Old Testament that any sacred writer
believed in or suspected the existence of a divine paternity and filiation
within the Godhead itself."
Old Testament writings about God neither express nor imply any idea of or belief
in a plurality or trinity of persons within the one Godhead.
Even to see in them suggestions or foreshadowings or 'veiled signs' of
the trinity of persons, is to go beyond the words and intent of the sacred
So even today,
Trinitarians admit that the Jew's who wrote the Old Testament, did not see
themselves writing about a God who was in any way more than One!
And the Jews still
today view God as absolutely One, with no divisions into persons, parts, or
powers. This now takes us to the Historical Revelations.
The Historical Revelations
are the way that God revealed Himself in the Old Testament.
There are several
references in the Old Testament of God revealing and or speaking to man. In the
New Testament, the writer of Hebrews 1:1 wrote, "God who at sundry times
and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets."
In other words, God spoke at various times and in various ways unto the fathers,
including and primarily by the prophets. We will examine some of these various
In Genesis 3:8 we
find that "they (Adam & Eve) heard the voice of the LORD God walking in
the garden in the cool of the day." The Bible is not clear just what took
place here. We do know that there was some form of communication between God and
man. Whither God appeared as a theophanie [angelic form (Heb. 2:16)], or simply
spoke to Adam and Eve, the Bible is not clear. But we do know that in some way
or form God talked with man before the fall.
In Genesis 12 we
find that God spoke to Abraham in verses 1-3. God then appeared to him in vs 7.
It is believed that all appearances by God in the Old Testament
were by theophanie. (Heb. 2:16) This was a common occurrence for Abraham. That
is, God either speaking or appearing to him. This is repeated several times in
the next 14 chapters, including God speaking to Hagar. In some of these
instances it says specifically that it was the angel of the LORD. 16.)
As stated above, this would have been God as a theophanie.
With the exception
of chapter 18, these all appear to have been single angelic representation.
Genesis 18 also appears that only One of the angles was actually a manifestation
of God, although two other angels were also initially there, they continued on
down to rescue Lot. There is absolutely NOTHING in this account to indicate that
these other two angels were anything more than angelic messengers for Lot (Gen.
In Genesis 28:13-16
we have our first recorded heavenly vision, Jacob's ladder. And at the top stood
"the" LORD! And he said, "I am the LORD God…" And in this
heavenly vision there is absolutely NO mention of any second or third persons
In Genesis 32 Jacob
wrestles with an angel. Jacob claimed to have seen "God face to
face." Once again , only ONE. And wasn't Jacob glad! Think what kind of
shape his thigh would have been in if he would have had to take
"three" wrestlers on! Heb.
Next the angel of
the LORD appeared to Moses in the burning bush in Exodus 3:2. This being one of
the "divers manners."
In Exodus 13:21
"the LORD went before the children of Israel by day in a pillar of cloud…
and by night in a pillar of fire" And spoke to them from the cloud. Exodus
19:9,19; 20:21; 23:20-23; 24:15-18; 33:10; 40:34-38; Psalms 99:7.
In Exodus 24:10-11;
the Bible tells us that Moses, Aaron, Nadab, Abihu, and the seventy elders of
Israel "saw the God of Israel..."
In light of verses such as John 1:18; 5:37; 1 Tim. 1:17; 6:16; Col. 1:15;
1 John 4:12; I believe this to be a theophanie. God revealed in an angel form.
In Exodus 33:11 we
have much the same situation, most likely a theophaine.
Verses 20-23 reiterates that God's face cannot be seen!
22:22-35, the angel of the LORD appeared first to Balaam's donkey. The LORD then
spoke through the donkey! This being one of the most unique of the "divers
manners" in which God spoke.
The angel of the
LORD is said to have spoken numerous times in the Old Testament. In that they
were always with a single voice, they offer little other evidence compared to
the visual appearances. Thus we will focus on the appearances.
See Chart 1
A single angel of
the LORD appeared to Joshua, Joshua 5:13-15; Gideon, Judges
6:11-25; Manoah and his wife, Judges 13:3-5,9-21; David, 2 Samuel
24:16-17; 1 Chronicles 21:15-16,18,27; Elijah, 2 Kings 1:3; & killed
the Assyrian's, 2 Kings 19:35; Isaiah 37;
The prophet Micaiah
saw "the LORD sitting on his throne, and all the host of heaven standing by
him on his right hand and on his left." 1 Kings 22:19; 2 Chronicles 18:18;
No mention of co-eternal, co-equal, persons with him! In spite of him clearly
seeing both the right and left hand sides!
In Job 1:6 and 2:1
we find the "sons of God." 17.) But NOT
"God the Son" or "God the Holy Ghost!" There is only mention
of the LORD as a single deity.
In Isaiah's vision
recorded in his 6th chapter, we only find "the LORD" high
and lifted up. Still no sightings of the other persons!
In Ezekiel 1:26-28,
and again in 2:1, he saw "the appearance of the glory of the LORD."
And only one spake.
What is most
significant about these past two visions is they occurred AFTER Psalms
2:7; 45:6-8; 110:1,4; These Psalms are believed to have been written between
1014-985 BC. Isaiah is believed to have written this passage in 748 BC and
Ezekiel is believed to have written his in 593 BC. 18.)
In other words almost 400 years AFTER David wrote about the "Son"
there was still NO "Son" seen in heaven! This proving these Psalms to
have been prophesies!
One of the most
unique visions in the Old Testament is in Daniel 7. This vision does speak of
"one like the Son of man" who then comes before the "Ancient of
days." The vision is told some four times. In the retelling the "Son
of man" is not mentioned? This vision is one of future relevance!
See Chart 2
This is all prophetic! What is most incredible is the description given
to the Ancient of days here in Daniel is almost word for word exactly as
the description given to Jesus in Revelation 1. The reason for this time period
of seeming separation would be during the time when Jesus, in the days of his
flesh, is our High Priest, Advocate, Mediator, etc. There is coming a time when
all the mediator roles of Christ will be done away with and then "God shall
be all in all!" When the Son of man shall come in his glory… THEN shall
he sit upon the throne of his glory." Matthew 25:31. The greatest
significance to this vision as relating to God, the "Son" is NOT
called "God the Son!" But is seen as a man! He was Not viewed
as an equal "being" with God in this vision!
So after having
reviewed the Historical Record, Interpretation, and Revelation in
the Old Testament we find that IF God is a Trinity He has done everything in His
power to conceal this "doctrine." Thus for the first
4,000 years of mankind, God revealed Himself as absolutely ONE!
There is one more
verse that is significant to look at before we go to the New Testament.
In the writings of
the last prophet before the 400 years of silence, we find the following
statement about God.
"For I am the
LORD, I change not;" Malachi 3:6
So for these 4,000
years we find that God revealed Himself as absolutely ONE! This being consistent
in the Historical Record, in the way His people interpreted it,
and God's manner of Revelations!
This now brings us
to the New Testament. We have the various ways God revealed himself in
the Old Testament fresh in our minds. What will God do next?
Now in the New
Testament we find that is God speaking to His people in a different way. We can
look again to Hebrews 1:1-2. "God, who at sundry times and in divers
manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets, 2Hath in
these last days spoken unto us by his Son…"
In this Part we are going to look at:
1. What was said about Jesus
What was said
about Jesus as was prophesied in
Isaiah 7:14. "Emmanuel, God with us." Now is fulfilled in Matthew
1:23! Some more History to base faith upon! But what does the verse say?
"God the Son" with us? NO! The "Second Person" of the
Trinity with us? NO! That isn't said at all! But God with us! No
qualification as to it just being a part of God! This would of course go against
the way The True God was Historically interpreted for the past 4,000 years. In
fact, Colossians 2:9 speaking of Jesus says, "For in him dwelleth all the
fullness of the Godhead bodily." Notice the Godhead was IN Him! Not Him IN
the Godhead as the Trinity relegates Him! This was all the fullness of God
dwelling in a body among men. 1 Timothy 3:16
Let us look back to
the writings of Isaiah again to see just who this baby born is going to be.
"For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government
shall be upon his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The
mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace."
Think about that!
The Jews believe in absolutely One God. This God is at times called their
Father, Deuteronomy 32:6; Isaiah 63:16; 64:8; Jeremiah 31:1,9; Malachi 2:10. And
this "Son" will be called the "Eternal Father!" 19.)
Or "Father Forever!" 20.)
And yet he is
called a Son? Why would this be? In that God is who He is, what ever He
does is usually just a little bit different than how we do it. God, who is a
single (Eph. 4:4, 1 Cor. 12:13) invisible (Rom. 1:20; Col. 1:15; 1 Tim. 1:17)
Spirit (John 4:24) caused a child to be born. In that he fathered this
child, it is fitting that he be called "Father." And in that He had
procreated this body it was fittingly called "Son." Heb. 1:5, Psalms
2:7. Both of these verses speak of
this Father-Son relationship as beginning on a day in time!
I will be to him a Father, and he shall be to
me a Son.
We find a couple of
terms regarding this. Jesus is called the "Son of man" eighty-eight
times in the New Testament, all the way to Revelation 14:14. And He is called
the "Son of God" 46 times all the way to Revelation 2:18. These two
terms are probably best able to describe the dual nature of Jesus. Jesus was of
a genre all His own! He is the "Only begotten." God never has or will
cause another Son to be born! Thus Jesus possessed a dual nature.
He was both God and man!
What is learned from Jesus Baptism. This being a favorite passage
often used to "prove" the Trinity?
when he was baptized, went up straightway out of the water: and, lo, the heavens
were opened unto him, and he saw the Spirit of God descending like a dove, and
lighting upon him: 17And lo a voice from heaven, saying, This is my
beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased." Mt 3:16-17
"And John bare
record, saying, I saw the Spirit descending from heaven like a dove, and it
abode upon him." Jn 1:32
Trinitarian can tell you that the voice was the Father and the Dove represents
the Holy Spirit, and of course Jesus is the Son. Thus there you have the
"three persons" of the Trinity! Just pretty simple, right?
Lets inquire just a
little bit further. In John 5:37, Jesus said that no man has heard the voice or
seen the shape of the Father! So right away, that means it wasn't the Father
that was heard at the baptism! But there is even additional proof! The Father
(as in the supposed "first person" of the Trinity) wasn't really the
Father of Jesus! The doctrine of the Trinity maintains that there are the
"Three distinct persons" in the Godhead. These of course being the
Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. We read in Matt. 1:18,20; and Lk 1:35; that it was
the Holy Spirit that performed the act of paternity! Thus, all we have is two
representatives present at the baptism. The Spirit and the Son!
A closer look
reveals that a voice does NOT a "Person" make! In other words, just
because we have a voice does not mean we have a "separate person!" God
spoke through a Donkey, Numbers 22:28, and Jesus said he could make the stones
cry out praise to him! Luke 19:40.
"dove" floating down and "abiding" on him! There are several
possibilities here! Isa. 46:11, tells us God can call a ravenous bird to go
anywhere he wants! Also, it is doubtful John truly saw a dove. This is most
likely a simile! "Like a dove." I doubt Jesus had a dove on his
shoulder throughout his ministry!
What we have to
remember here is that God is GOD! He can do what he wants with anything
He wants! If he wants you to hear a voice, you are going to hear a voice
even if you are deaf! He can make you hear it if he has to stir up the molecules
to create the sound! If he wants you to see a dove, you will see a dove even if
you are the only one in a crowd who does!
The voice and dove
were simply signs given by God, so John would know that Jesus was the Lamb of
God! And thus no real proof of a Trinity!
What is said about His
Because Jesus was both God and man, (He had
a dual nature) He was unique in several ways! But he also was a man just like
you and I in ALL THINGS! Hebrews 2:14-18; 4:15; This is critical
to understand! Considering the
Do (or did) you grow physically? So did Jesus.
Luke 2:40, 52;
While it was true
that He was a genre unlike any other, He also was quite a bit like us also! In
fact, the Bible says "…in all things it behoved him to be made like unto
his brethren." And so as a man there were the same "human"
constraints, constrictors, limitations, etc. that you and I face.
The last three
items in this list are often the most shocking to people. Jesus was God manifest
in the flesh and He prayed? Sure did! More than once in fact! How much
more should we pray!
Consider this. Do
you have God's Spirit inside of you? Why do you pray? Because
"mankind" is supposed to pray! The Bible commands us to pray.
So what kind of example (1 Peter 2:21) would Jesus have been had He not
prayed? Colossians 2:9 tells us that "all the fullness of the Godhead was
in him bodily." Yet He prayed. The Spirit was given not by measure unto
him, John 3:34. Yet He prayed.
He felt God
forsaken because we feel God forsaken sometimes! All things and all
points he was a man like us!
And to really
experience what it was like to be a man, He also had a God! Philippians 2:8
tells that because He was "…in fashion as a man he humbled
himself…" He knows what its like. He has walked a mile in our moccasins,
thus He is a righteous Judge!
One last point
relating to Jesus as a man. Although He was God manifest in the flesh, as
already stated there were human restrictions he had to endure. One area of
limitation was His knowledge. That is, at least His knowledge of one event
(possibly others as well). Matthew 24:36, and Mark 13:32 both tell us that
"no man knoweth" the day and the hour of the end of the world,
but the Father only. These readings are particularly interesting IF God were a
Trinity. It is as if Jesus goes through the list of those who might
should know. The Son, the angels, they don't know. Only the Father. Interesting
that the Holy Spirit was NOT included in the list? In that the supposed
"third person" was NOT a man, "He" would not have had the
same constrictors that Jesus did as a man. Thus "He" (the "third
person") should have qualified to know and should have been included in the
list of dwellers in Heaven privy to information. That is of course, IF God were
What Jesus said about Who He
He never came right out and said I am
God! He came close a few times! In John 10:30-33 and they almost stoned him,
because "being a man, makest thyself God." In John 6:15, after the
miracle of the loaves and fishes they were going to take Him by force and make
Him King! And in John 8:58-59; 5:17-18; (Isa. 40:25;) were other occasions in
which He was nearly stoned for the way He spoke of himself!
But Jesus couldn't
allow such. He couldn't say it openly and plainly. For His plan to be fulfilled
He had to be crucified! And that would not have happened had they realized who
He was. "Which none of the princes of this world knew: for had they known
it, they would not have crucified the Lord of Glory." 1 Corinthians 2:8
And so Jesus spoke
about who He was in parables. John 16:25 Jesus says, "These things have I
spoken unto you in proverbs: but the time cometh, when I shall no more speak
unto you in proverbs, but I shall shew you plainly of the Father." The word
"proverbs," is defined as: "Or in parables, or metaphors," p
a r o i
m i a i
V (paroimiais) "There
is some difficulty in defining this
word precisely: a
translation like "parables" does not convey accurately the meaning.
BAGD 629 s.v. p
a r o i
m i a suggest in
Lets look at how Jesus "concealed"
and yet "revealed" who He was. The "enigmatic manner"
He spoke as John primarily wrote.
I AM not doing the things you see me do! John
5:17, 19, 30, 36, 8:28, 29, 9:4, 10:25, 32, 37, 14:10, 11, 31, 17:4
One of the most
significant things this above list reveals is that Jesus was NOT "God
the Son!" IF He would have been, then He would have done all of the above
things by the power of the co-equal, co-eternal "second person!" This
was not the case! He was God the Father manifest in flesh! 1 Tim. 3:16.
proves right along with the prophesies of the Old Testament that He was
"Emmanuel," and "his name shall be called… the everlasting
What Jesus said about the supposed other "Persons" this being one of the most revealing things about who God is.
During the three
and a half years of His ministry, He would have the greatest opportunity to
clearly reveal, at least in parable form (just as we have seen above how
He revealed He was the Father) that God was a Trinity. Here was His opportunity
to introduce the "others," and to set the Jews straight! Instead He
reaffirmed their belief in One God! John 4:22, Mark 12:29-30. So we will look at
some of the things Jesus said about His "co-equal-persons."
It is an amazing
fact that Jesus only specifically mentioned the supposed
"third-person" thirty-five times as recorded in
Matthew-Mark-Luke-John-Acts. That is contrasted by 178 references to the Father.
Thus the "third-person" is the weak link to the Trinity. In that Jesus
was the Father (Spirit) manifest in flesh, all references to the Father were
done so as to conceal His true identity as mentioned above in John 16:25. Thus
we will take a look at these 35 references made by Jesus about the "third
As we view these
references, remember the people Jesus was speaking to were those we read about
in Part I as having an absolutely singular view of God! No divisions of
parts or persons. Will Jesus clear up their "misunderstanding?"
It is clear John
records more of Jesus speaking about the Spirit than any other writer, with
three times as many references. In fact more than the others combined! But if
Jesus is indeed presenting a radical new truth about the God the Jew's served
for the past 4,000 years, wouldn't all the writers feel obligated
to help in this revelation? That is if they indeed understood and believed it
themselves? Or was it a "later" revelation in 325 AD? 381 AD? Or after
the first five centuries as Fortman says!
(See footnote 23. below)
Since the Trinity
was not revealed in the Old Testament, we should find Jesus revealing it in the
New! Here are the 35 account of Jesus speaking of the Spirit in the New
Testament. (If you consider the parallel passages, the total is more like 27
than 35! Two of MT's are also in MK and LK, the third one from MK is in MT
[making all of MK's in MT also] and one of LK's is in Acts, leaving only 27
original references) And then considering references such as: "Living
Water," and "Promise of the Father" do little to reveal a
"third person" also, leaving us with about 21 actual possible
references to really work with. But we will look at all 35 below.
(Parallel's with MK 13:11, and LK 12:11-12)
Is it not
inconceivable, that Matthew waited until now for his first mention of the Spirit
by Jesus? And this passage gives no indication the Father and the Spirit are
distinct and separate! Think of it! The Sermon on the Mount in chapters
5, 6, & 7. The Lord's prayer (within this Sermon). All
without a hint of a third person within the Godhead! Such a critical omission
did not escape the notice of some Trinitarian scribes!
There are some manuscripts in which there is the certainly spurious, and
late Trinitarian addendum. "...the
glory of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit for ever. Amen." These manuscripts are: MS 157 and MS 225 are dated 12th
century. MS 418 is dated 15th
Jesus even fed 5,000 men
plus women and children in Mt. 14, and 4,000 men plus women and children in Mt.
15. Surely these would have been some of His largest crowds! Is it not
inconceivable that the Spirit is not mentioned in these settings? (While it is
understood that Jesus did not cover every point of doctrine on everyday (or at
least the Disciples did not record him to have). The lack of mentioning this
considering the Jew's central thoughts about God being so contrary, IF the
Trinity were a doctrine Jesus meant to reveal, surely He would have spoken on
the subject more!) But here there is no distinction made to help these Jews
understand this was really "two other persons!"
"But if I cast out devils by the Spirit of God, then the kingdom of God is
come unto you."
Once again no real
distinction, between God, the Father, or the Spirit! Or are these Jew's
and Disciples suppose to understand this is really a distinct person
(although only mentioned once before by Matthew's account) from the Father Jesus
has been speaking of? Considering that the Jew's considered God who is a Spirit
to be their Father! Deuteronomy 32:6; Isaiah 63:16; 64:8; Malachi 2:10; etc.
& 32 "Wherefore I say unto
you, All manner of sin and blasphemy shall be forgiven unto men: but the
blasphemy against the Holy Spirit shall not be forgiven unto men. 32And
whosoever speaketh a word against the Son of man, it shall be forgiven him: but
whosoever speaketh against the Holy Spirit, it shall not be forgiven him,
neither in this world, neither in the world to come."
(Parallel's with MK 3:29, LK 12:10)
This is a very
critical passage of Scripture! In Mathew 12, here Jesus really make no
distinction between the "Spirit of God" in verse 28 and the Spirit in
verse 31! In fact, in verse 31, "Holy," is added by
translators. If you were in the audience when Jesus said this, would you have
known this was to mean the "third person?" Since once again the Jew's
God is a Spirit who's greatest attribute is his Holiness? (Lev. 11:44-45, 19:2,
20:3, 26, 21:8, etc.) Notice Jesus does not mention blasphemy against the Father
who he has been speaking of for the past 9 chapters (Jesus really doesn't speak
of the Father prior to Chapter 4)! Is the listener suppose to know they are
different persons? And does this mean the Father cannot be blasphemed? And then
consider Jesus said the "works" He did were done by the Father! John
5:17, 19, 30, 36, 8:28, 29, 9:4, 10:25, 32, 37, 14:10, 11, 31, 17:4; Clearly the
Spirit here is in reference to the Father, who is God, who is a Spirit! John
4:24. Who is manifest in Jesus Christ! 1 Timothy 3:16; Thus a great opportunity
is passed up for Jesus to even in some parable form to indicate a "third
"He saith unto them, How then doth David in Spirit call him Lord, saying,
44The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine
enemies thy footstool? 45If David then call him Lord, how is he his
(Parallel's with MK 12:36)
This passage raises
many questions. If God is a Trinity of three co-equal, co-eternal persons, why
aren’t all three on the throne? Where is the Spirit in
relationship to this throne? Does this passage reveal a Trinity? When you
consider the Jew were well aware of this passage from the Psalms and did not
find within it a plurality of deity, how could it be said this was Jesus
revealing the Trinity? Particularly when NO Old Testament vision revealed
co-equal persons? Always singular representation!
Matt. 28:18-20 "And Jesus came and spake unto them, saying, All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth. 19Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit: 20Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you: and, lo, I am with you alway, even unto the end of the world. Amen."
God were indeed a Trinity, why would one member have all power? Why is
"name" singular in verse 19? Did the Disciples understand this to mean
a Trinity? If so, why did they not use these "titles" in the Book of
Acts when they baptized? What about the Eusebian Form?
And why is it Jesus that is with them to the end of the World,
instead of the "Trinity?" So thus one of the seemingly most
conclusive verses Trinitarians have in the entire Bible is surrounded with
questions regarding its "true" meaning. And then the Disciples and
Jew's understanding of it! So if God is a Trinity, Jesus waited until He was
practically in the air, and Matthew's next to last verse to give his best
attempt which actually did little or nothing to reveal Him as such! In the six
verses in Matthew that referenced the "third person" the readers
certainly were not left with a distinct knowledge of a God in "three
persons!" And particularly did not make an obvious distinction to these
Jew's in regards to their historical view of God!
"Verily I say unto you, All sins shall be forgiven unto the sons of men,
and blasphemies wherewith soever they shall blaspheme: 29But he that
shall blaspheme against the Holy Spirit hath never forgiveness, but is in danger
of eternal damnation: 30Because they
said, He hath an unclean spirit."
Here in Mark 3,
Jesus once again mentions blasphemy against the Holy Spirit and fails to mention
the Father? But in light of the context, Jesus mentions blasphemy against
the Holy Spirit because they said He did miracles by Beelzebub? But
wasn't it the Father who did the works? John 5:17, 19, 30, 36, 8:28, 29, 9:4,
10:25, 32, 37, 14:10, 11, 31, 17:4; Thus this is a clear indication that He
is referring to the Father, who is a Spirit!
Mark also, manages
to tell of the feeding of the 5,000+ in Mark 6, and the 4,000+ in chapter 8
without mentioning the "Spirit."
reference to the Holy Spirit is the same as Matt. 22:43-45.
"For David himself said by the Holy Spirit, The LORD said to my Lord, Sit
thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool."
If the Trinity is
made up of three co-equal, co-eternal members, then why aren’t all three on
the throne? And where is the Holy Spirit in relationship to this throne?
(See Matthew 22:43-45 above for additional issues)
"But when they shall lead you, and deliver you up, take no thought
beforehand what ye shall speak, neither do ye premeditate: but whatsoever shall
be given you in that hour, that speak ye: for it is not ye that speak, but the
Does this sound
like a third person, or simply God's Spirit anointing? Thus Mark fails to
give a conclusive revelation to the Trinity! These being all the
references by Jesus to the Holy Spirit mentioned in Mark! This is believed to
have been the oldest Gospel! Thus the first writer of the Gospel does not
present a very clear understanding of God as a Trinity! There is a reason!
This is the Spirit
of Jehovah, from Isa. 61:1. Is this different than the Holy Spirit? Is there
anything about this passage to indicate it as such? In light of only One Spirit!
Eph. 4:4, 1 Cor. 12:13, Ps. 139:7, John 4:24. As has been already presented, the
Father was the one doing all of the above mentioned things! Thus this is NOT a
reference to a "third person
In chapter 9, Luke
also bypasses the feeding of the 5,000+ without a reference to the "third
"If ye then, being evil, know how to give good gifts unto your children:
how much more shall your heavenly Father give the Holy Spirit to them
that ask him?"
The Father gives
the third person? Does this sound like a separate person from the Father, or
simply the Father, who is a Spirit, giving of himself to those asking him? If
God is a Trinity, co-equal and co-eternal, why couldn't you ask the Holy Spirit
"And whosoever shall speak a word against the Son of man, it shall be
forgiven him: but unto him that blasphemeth against the Holy Spirit it shall not
be forgiven. 11And when they bring you unto the synagogues, and unto
magistrates, and powers, take ye no thought how or what thing ye shall answer,
or what ye shall say: 12For the Holy Spirit shall teach you in the
same hour what ye ought to say."
blasphemy against the Holy Spirit is mentioned with no mention of the Father?
And then mentioning that the Holy Spirit will anoint you to speak. Is this a
third person? Think of this! Jesus is revealing the Trinity to these Absolutely
Monotheistic Jews. Surely these writers realize the importance of making this
known! How is the Holy Spirit that teaches you in verse 12 different from the
"Spirit of the Father" in Matt. 10? Particularly since there is but
One Spirit! There is no difference! For more issues see above. MT 12 & Mk 3.
There is one other
way that Luke spoke of the Spirit.
"And, behold, I send the promise of my Father upon you: but tarry ye in the
city of Jerusalem, until ye be endued with power from on high."
Once again an
absolutely non-conclusive statement that does not reveal God's Spirit as a
distinct "third person."
The writers all
said, let John do it? That is, he will offer the best "proof" text for
the Trinity. With the exception of Matt. 28:19 you will seldom hear discussion
about the person of the Spirit, or the Trinity as a whole from the first three
"Jesus answered, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of
water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God. 6That
which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is
spirit. 7Marvel not that I said unto thee, Ye must be born again. 8The
wind bloweth where it listeth, and thou hearest the sound thereof, but canst not
tell whence it cometh, and whither it goeth: so is every one that is born of the
Does this sound
like Jesus is trying to reveal a third person with him?
"For he whom God hath sent speaketh the words of God: for God giveth not
the Spirit by measure unto him."
Who is God in this
verse? The Father, giving to the Second person the Third person? Or God
manifesting himself in flesh, 1 Tim. 3:16, Col. 2:9. Or is God the Trinity? Thus
we would have two Sons!
John 4:10 &
14 "Jesus answered and said unto
her, If thou knewest the gift of God, and who it is that saith to thee, Give me
to drink; thou wouldest have asked of him, and he would have given thee living
water. 14But whosoever drinketh of the water that I shall give him
shall never thirst; but the water that I shall give him shall be in him a well
of water springing up into everlasting life."
like a "third person" here? NOT!
"God is a Spirit: and they that worship him must worship him
in spirit and in truth."
So now once again
the question, who is God here? Is it the Father, or the Holy Spirit? Or all
three of the Trinity? So who is the Spirit? There is only One Spirit,
Eph. 4:4, 1 Cor. 12:13, Ps. 139:7! And it is clear from the context here
in John 4:22-24 that the Father's substance is Spirit, and this reference is to
John also, in
chapter 6 fails to tell of Jesus revealing God as a Trinity to the 5,000+ here.
Was He selective as to who he told? With his other parables he just told them
outright and left the Jew's to try and figure them out. Some he would explain to
his Disciples. But never a clear explanation of the "God in three
"In the last day, that great day of the feast, Jesus stood and
cried, saying, If any man thirst, let him come unto me, and drink. 38He
that believeth on me, as the scripture hath said, out of his belly shall flow
rivers of living water. 39(But this spake he of the Spirit, which
they that believe on him should receive: for the Holy Spirit was not yet given;
because that Jesus was not yet glorified.)"
Here John clarifies
that Jesus is referring to the Holy Spirit as the living water.
"And I will pray the Father,
and he shall give you another Comforter, that he may abide with you for ever; 17Even
the Spirit of truth; whom the world cannot receive, because it seeth him not,
neither knoweth him: but ye know him; for he dwelleth with you, and shall be in
you. 18I will not leave you comfortless: I will come to you. 19Yet
a little while, and the world seeth me no more; but ye see me: because I live,
ye shall live also. 20At that day ye shall know that I am in
my Father, and ye in me, and I in you."
Trinitarians try to
say that the word "another" means a different person. While a
different means, manner, or way, of comfort works here also!
Particularly in light of the context! While Jesus is speaking of this other
means of comfort being sent, he says "I will not leave you orphans
(comfortless), I will come to you! Then Jesus says, at the day when you see me
no more, I shall be in you! Alright, the Disciples knew the Spirit of Truth
(John 14:6) because he was with them, (Jesus IS the one with them!) and would be
in them! This make Jesus the Holy Spirit! Or the same Spirit within him is the
"But the Comforter, which is the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will
send in my name, he shall teach you all things, and bring all things to your
remembrance, whatsoever I have said unto you."
Here is a single
verse with Jesus speaking in which he mentions the "other two." But
does this indicate a Trinity of persons? Or God who fathered a body, sending his
Spirit to believers in His name, which is also the name he gave to his image or
Son (body). Col. 1:15, John 5:43.
"But when the Comforter is come, whom I will send unto you from the Father,
even the Spirit of truth, which proceedeth from the Father, he shall
testify of me:"
Once again, another
verse with reference to the supposed other "persons". What
about John 14:6 &17? Didn't Jesus say in that passage HE was the Spirit of
Truth? A portion of the same Spirit that dwelt in Jesus Christ would dwell in
John 16:7-15 "Nevertheless
I tell you the truth; It is expedient for you that I go away: for if I go not
away, the Comforter will not come unto you; but if I depart, I will send him
unto you. 8And when he is come, he will reprove the world of sin, and
of righteousness, and of judgment: 9Of sin, because they believe not
on me; 10Of righteousness, because I go to my Father, and ye see me
no more; 11Of judgment, because the prince of this world is judged. 12I
have yet many things to say unto you, but ye cannot bear them now. 13Howbeit
when he, the Spirit of truth, is come, he will guide you into all truth: for he
shall not speak of himself; but whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he
speak: and he will shew you things to come. 14He shall glorify me:
for he shall receive of mine, and shall shew it unto you. 15All
things that the Father hath are mine: therefore said I, that he shall take of
mine, and shall shew it unto you."
Question: IF they
were three different "persons," then why must one go away before the
other can come? The Comforter is just another means of God dwelling with his
people! But it is different in that instead of just being with them, He
is in them! The Spirit of Truth. Who is Truth personified? John 14:6, Jesus
Christ! Throughout the Bible there are many inanimate objects that are referred
to with personal pronouns without any intent to indicate a person! Wisdom in
Proverbs, is often personified as a woman with personal pronouns used.
"And when he had said this, he breathed on them, and saith unto
them, Receive ye the Holy Spirit:"
here that indicates the Spirit to be a "third person."
So in spite of the
additional references by John, the meaning is NO clearer! Jesus has still not
revealed God as a Trinity!
There is nothing to
indicate that these were co-lateral persons with Jesus!
"But ye shall receive power, after that the Holy Spirit is come upon you:
and ye shall be witnesses unto me both in Jerusalem, and in all Judaea, and in
Samaria, and unto the uttermost part of the earth."
consider this. If you were a Jew (you know their background) hearing Jesus speak
of the Holy Spirit, would you be convince that he was meaning a third person
within the Godhead? Could you piece it all together? You would struggle if all
you had was Matthew, Mark, and Luke to go on! And that is not to say the
Trinity is revealed in John, just there is more opportunity for confusion
with the many references to the Spirit.
The revelation of
the Trinity actually was brought over from Grecian thought and philosophy and
was put to "Christianity" by Tertullian 160-220 AD, (as well as
others) and was made a dogma of the Church in 325 AD, at the Nicean Council. And
then added to at Constantinople in 381 AD, and the following councils.
intended for God to be viewed differently than the One and Only God of the
Jew's! In fact, Jesus makes this clear on several occasion. John 4:22, Jesus
said the Jew's were correct in their worship of God! In Mark 12:29-34, Jesus
reaffirms the Jew's understanding of the Deu. 6:4, "Hear O Israel, the Lord
our God is one Lord." Speaking to a Jew, and knowing his understanding of
this passage, Jesus told him he was "not far from the kingdom of God."
Jesus was the manifestation of that One God, 1 Tim. 3:16. He was the image of
the invisible God, Col. 1:15, Heb. 1:1-3. Not the second person in or of that
God. All the fulness of the Godhead (Deity) dwelt in him! Col. 2:9.
Not Jesus dwelling IN the Godhead as some "second person."
It took the efforts
of the "Church" in the years from 385-1517 and beyond, to put to death
all who did not believe the Trinity to get "Christianity" to
where it is today. That is, where the Doctrine of the Trinity is believed by the
majority of "Christians." In Tertullian's day, 160-220 AD, this was
not the case!
majority of believers, are startled at the dispensation (of the three in one) on
the ground that their very rule of faith withdrawals them from the world's
plurality of gods to the one only true God;…they are constantly throwing out
against us that we are preachers of two gods and three gods, while they take to
themselves pre-eminently, the credit of being the worshippers of the One
The Orthodox Church
gives great significance to Tertullian, calling him the Father of Latin
Theology, and the Father of the Trinity. Yet in his day he went against
the MAJORITY by believing the Trinity!
The majority were startled by such teaching!
significance of these words by Tertullian is that he was not in Israel when he
made this statement! He was from Carthage, North Africa! And the majority of the
believers Tertullian spoke of would NOT have been Jews! Thus the early church
preached and taught its believers in the One true God! The early Church's view
of the Godhead was the same as the Jew's! But with the understanding of the
incarnation, the One True God manifest in flesh!
Thus we do NOT find
the Trinity revealed by What is said about Jesus, What is said about His
flesh, What Jesus said about Who He was, nor by What Jesus said about the
supposed other "persons."
So When was the
formulation of this dogma (Trinity)
was the most important theological achievement of the first five centuries
of the Church."
basis of careful analysis of the language of the Bible, it shows, that although
there is no single passage of Scripture setting forth the entire doctrine,
it was the intent of the early creeds and councils to pull together the
teaching of the New Testament (and, through it, of the Old Testament) about the
mystery of the one God." (emphasis
admits it took the efforts of the Church through the first 500 years to complete
the formulation of the Trinity! In
spite of its lack of support in the Scripture, the creeds and councils were able
to "pull it together" over a period of 500 years!
I say, it's NOT
"It is so misunderstood that a majority of Christians, when asked,
give incorrect and at times downright heretical definitions of the
is represented today by the United ("Jesus Only") Pentecostals.... As
the differences between modalism and pure trinitarianism are rather minute, it
is not surprising that a great number of Christians in mainline denominations,
including Roman Catholicism, hold a modalistic conception of the Trinity, at
least unconsciously" 27.)
So today, even
among Trinitarians "a great number" see God as modalistic or Oneness!
And the "majority of Christians" have an incorrect view of the
Trinity. Sounds like the Trinity hasn't been revealed as of yet!
GOD IS ONE!
1. This figure, 7,742, is taken from Bro.
Robert Sabin's "This is Eternal Life Seminar" Session 1. 1986, by
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